Hi Joe Machuta

Thank you for your comment at Provoketive Magazine (http://provoketive.com). We’re creating a space of rich conversation about life, faith, justice and culture without judgment. Our desire is to provoke the reader’s imagination through conversation and open up spaces of dialogue, learning, and hope.  We want to invite you to come back soon and continue to participate in the conversation. 

Thank you,
Jonathan Brink
Provoketive Magazine

You posted the following comment:
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Wiskers, I don't think you read what I said. I said that Jesus and his followers redefined the term/phrase word of God from scripture/Torah to Jesus/gospel. If there is one thing that I have proven by a preponderance of the evidence over two years of blogging it is that Jesus and his first century followers did not refer to scripture as the word of God. My question is this if Jesus and his followers changed the definition as they did, why is it that 2000 years later his followers have bought the Scribe and Pharisee definition. Please check it out at http://www.paradigmshift-jmac.blogspot.com. 

Further, when the New Testament was written there was a transition period going on where the Old Covenant/Temple and the New Covenant Church were limping along side by side. That changed at the destruction of the temple and Jerusalem.. Jeremiah stated that Leviticus, et. al. was obsolete and the writer of Hebrews quoted that and explained that though it was obsolete is was soon passing. It passed.